أبرأته منه فبرئ

09:25 Sep 11, 2021 

Further to the above, it's below here, to place the document in its environment, the common practice in Morocco is, when the groom can't or prefers not to pay the dowry in full, he pays part of it but remains indebted to the bride pending the rest of the amount. This is transcribed in the marriage certificate.

07:40 Sep 11, 2021 

I was hesitant to add more to this discussion as I am not a legal translator and wanted to stay in my lane. However, I also wanted to mention that women who return the mahr to their husbands generally do so in private, and it would also be unusual to return the whole amount. For example, let's say a woman's father demanded a high amount of $5,000 in order for the marriage to take place, and she knew this was a burden on her new husband. She might then return two or three thousand dollars to him in private. This is not something that would take place on the wedding contract itself.

06:16 Sep 11, 2021 

Thank you everyone for the discussion.
If this clarifies anything, what I meant is that I have seen a translation of a Moroccan marriage contract in which the translator omitted this phrase even though it was included in the original. I wasn't talking about how some source texts have it and some don't. I was commenting that someone thought it wasn't even necessary to translate.
Assem, I understand your points, but it seems bizarre that this contract included a specific value of the dower, quite a bit of money, if the wife was just going to waive it and give it back. Maybe I should have given that context.

14:13 Sep 9, 2021 

I also agree with you and Saeed that the bride has acknowledged receiving the dowry in full. Cara said, "this phrase (فأبرأته منه فبرئ) was omitted, but it didn't explain what it meant or why it would be omitted". I explained that this phrase has to be omitted because "فأبرأته منه فبرئ" means "remitted it back, so the husband became fully exempted" which didn't happen in this contract. Further, I have translated many Moroccan marriage contracts and they didn’t say “فأبرأته منه فبرئ”, so it is not a matter of tautology, especially that the text is legal where every word matters.
However, I am not assuming that my answer is correct. This is my humble opinion, with all respect to your comments.

11:28 Sep 9, 2021 

I agree with Saeed. I often get to do translations of Moroccan documents, and the bride has acknowledged receiving the dowry in full, and thus absolved the bridegroom of [further] responsibility for the same. I usually don't translate فبرئ as the context is clear enough without it.
Thanks

10:57 Sep 9, 2021 

I am still convinced with my suggestion for the following reasons:
1- لو أن الزوجة قبضت المهر كاملاً ولم ترجعه إلى الزوج لانتفت الحاجة إلى قول "فأبرأته منه فبرئ" لأن العبارة السابقة توضح ذلك بدقة (قبضت الزوجة المذكورة من الزوج المذكور جميع الصداق المذكور قبضا تاما اعترافا).
2- "أبرأت الزوج من المهر" عبارة وردت عند الفقهاء بمعنى محدد هو "تنازل الزوجة عن المهر".
3- لا يجوز للزوجة أن تتنازل عن المهر إلا بعد استلامه، فلا بد من أن تستلمه وتقر بذلك قبل أن تتنازل عنه وهذا لا يتعارض مع السياق المذكور.

"وعلى ذلك لا يجوز للزوجة أن تتزوج بدون مهر او نفقة كما لا يجوز لها ان تتنازل عنه لأنه حق الله وحق الاولياء .. ولكنها ان ابرأت الزوج من المهر كله أو بعضه بعد إقراره بالعقد الصحيح جاز لها ذلك لأنه أصبح حقها."
https://gate.ahram.org.eg/News/265149.aspx

"ويسقط كل المهر في الأحوال التالية:
الأول: إذا أبرأت الزوجة زوجها من المهر كله قبل الدخول أو بعده، بشرط أن تكون كاملة الأهلية."
https://www.elwatannews.com/news/details/837159

"وقال الحنابلة (3) : إذا أبرأت المرأة الزوج من صداقها، أو وهبته له، ثم طلقها قبل الدخول، رجع الزوج عليها بنصفه"
http://islamport.com/w/fqh/Web/1272/5835.htm

10:47 Sep 9, 2021 

I have to disagree with your interpretation of this. There is no indication in the sentence that the bride returned the mahr to the groom. She instead acknowledges her receipt of the mahr in full and now absolves the groom of any further payments. As I indicated in my previous comment, some people might pay the mahr in installments, so this is saying that there is nothing left to pay.

08:47 Sep 9, 2021 

The bride has to receive the dowry because it is an essential condition of marriage. Then, she has the right to remit it back to her husband. However, she can't reject it or waive it in advance. "Giving up the Mahr before the marriage contract is nonsense. How can she give up her Mahr before owning it?" Maybe this proves to the husband that she has voluntarily waived the dowry out of her own will.

08:26 Sep 9, 2021 

With your permission if I may Cara, a tentative translation of the entire ST for discussion purposes and further clarity:
" The said bride fully (declares/recognizes/acknowledges) that she has (receive/cash/get) from the said groom in full the entire amount of the dowry and has declared him free/clear/dissolved of the payment of the dowry."
Comments and discussion are welcome.
Thanks.

07:07 Sep 9, 2021 

"So how can she receive it but also waive it?"

If she received it in full, this must mean that the groom was absolved of any further payments/installments (not that she waived the mahr to begin with).